ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?
- A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
- B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
- C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
- D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.
2. The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine. The nurse should instruct the client that it is not safe to eat which of the following foods while taking this medication?
- A. whole grain bread
- B. Avocados
- C. Smoked salmon
- D. Pepperoni pizza
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Avocados contain high levels of tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis when consumed with phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is essential for clients taking MAOIs to avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent dangerous interactions and potential health risks.
3. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
4. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
5. How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?
- A. Host
- B. Reservoir
- C. Mode of transmission
- D. Portal of entry
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.
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