ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Cool, moist skin
- D. Incisional pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.
2. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
3. Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
- A. Left atrium
- B. Right atrium
- C. Left ventricle
- D. Right ventricle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the left atrium. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins. This blood is then pumped into the left ventricle before being circulated throughout the body. The right atrium, represented by choice B, actually receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava. Choices C and D, the left ventricle and right ventricle respectively, are chambers involved in pumping blood out of the heart to the body and lungs, rather than receiving blood from the lungs.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?
- A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
- B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
- C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
- D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.
5. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
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