Nursing Elites

1. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and has questions about the disease. To research, the healthcare professional should identify that which of the following electronic databases has the most comprehensive collection of nursing articles?

• A. MEDLINE
• B. CINAHL
• C. ProQuest
• D. Health Source

Correct answer: B

Rationale: CINAHL (Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature) is a comprehensive database that specializes in nursing and allied health literature. It is a valuable resource for healthcare professionals seeking nursing-related articles, making it the most appropriate option for the nurse caring for a client with questions about pancreatic cancer.

3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

4. A healthcare provider is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Instill 500 ml of solution through the NG tube.
• B. Insert a large-bore NG tube.
• C. Use a cold irrigation solution.
• D. Instruct the client to lie on their right side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a gastric lavage procedure for upper gastrointestinal bleeding, inserting a large-bore NG tube is essential to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. This tube allows for efficient irrigation and suction, aiding in the removal of harmful substances from the stomach. Instilling a large volume of solution or using a cold irrigation solution can lead to complications such as fluid overload or hypothermia. Instructing the client to lie on their right side is not directly related to the gastric lavage procedure.

5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

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