ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?
- A. Sitting
- B. Standing
- C. Genupectoral
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.
2. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm³
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm³
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
4. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the healthcare provider identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?
- A. Frothy, pink sputum
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Weight gain
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary congestion is a common manifestation of left-sided heart failure. When the left side of the heart fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. This can result in symptoms such as frothy, pink-tinged sputum due to the presence of blood in the respiratory secretions. Jugular vein distention, weight gain, and bradypnea are also associated with heart failure, but frothy, pink sputum specifically indicates pulmonary congestion in this scenario.
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