the following are the major veins used in parenteral cannulation except the following are the major veins used in parenteral cannulation except
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 7

1. Which of the following are major veins commonly used in parenteral cannulation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The aorta is not a vein; it is the main artery in the body that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. In parenteral cannulation, major veins like the basilic vein, femoral vein, and subclavian vein are typically used for access. Therefore, the correct answer is the aorta, as it is an artery and not a vein used for cannulation.

2. Freud's psychosexual stage that occurs between the ages of 3 and 5 and includes the Oedipal period is the ________ stage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Freud's psychosexual stage that occurs between the ages of 3 and 5, including the Oedipal period, is the phallic stage. During this stage, children experience the Oedipus or Electra complex, where they develop unconscious sexual desires for the opposite-sex parent and see the same-sex parent as a rival. The genital stage (Choice A) is the final stage where mature sexual interests emerge, oral (Choice B) and anal stages precede the phallic stage, and latency (Choice D) is a stage following the phallic stage characterized by a focus on developing social and cognitive skills.

3. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.

4. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

5. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: Negative throat culture

Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.

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