ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Final Exam Quizlet
1. The concept of ________ means that because of their genetic makeup, individuals differ in their responsiveness to qualities of the environment.
- A. gene-environment interaction
- B. niche-picking
- C. passive correlation
- D. evocative correlation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, gene-environment interaction. This concept highlights that genetic factors play a role in how individuals react to environmental factors. Niche-picking (choice B) refers to the tendency of individuals to select environments that complement their genetic predispositions, not the inherent genetic differences in responsiveness. Passive correlation (choice C) involves the association between the genetic makeup of parents and the environment they provide for their children, not individual differences in responsiveness. Evocative correlation (choice D) relates to the idea that an individual's genetic traits can elicit certain responses from others in the environment, rather than individual differences in responsiveness.
2. When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, what adverse effect should they monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyponatremia is a critical adverse effect associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. This medication is a diuretic that can lead to excessive loss of sodium and water from the body, potentially causing low sodium levels and resulting in hyponatremia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, headache, weakness, and muscle cramps, is essential to prevent serious complications. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are also not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.
3. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Decreased libido
- D. B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.
4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
5. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?
- A. Pain severity
- B. Wound drainage
- C. Tissue integrity
- D. Airway patency
Correct answer: Airway patency
Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.
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