Nursing Elites

1. The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid intramuscular injections.
• B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
• C. Check temperature every 4 hours.
• D. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.

2. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

• A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
• D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.

3. Which task for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection
• B. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions
• C. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection
• D. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering subcutaneous medications falls within the education and scope of practice of an LPN/LVN. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, teaching the patient, and developing a discharge plan are tasks that require an RN level of education and scope of practice. LPN/LVNs can assist in patient care, but tasks that involve assessment, teaching, and care planning are typically the responsibility of an RN.

4. A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.

5. The nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds in a newly admitted patient. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Neutrophil count
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hemoglobin level.' Pallor of the skin and nail beds is a sign of anemia, which is characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Anemia is a condition where there is a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. Checking the hemoglobin level would help confirm the presence and severity of anemia, guiding further diagnostic and treatment interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because platelet count, neutrophil count, and white blood cell count are not typically associated with the pallor of the skin and nail beds, which are more indicative of an underlying anemic condition.

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