Nursing Elites

1. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer a potassium supplement.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

2. Which heart chamber ejects blood into the lungs via the pulmonary artery?

• A. Right atrium
• B. Left atrium
• C. Right ventricle
• D. Left ventricle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the right ventricle. The right ventricle is responsible for pumping deoxygenated blood into the lungs through the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs, and the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body, respectively.

3. What test uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the heart, allowing doctors to assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an echocardiogram. An echocardiogram utilizes high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) to create images of the heart, enabling doctors to evaluate its structure, function, and detect any abnormalities. MRI (Choice B) uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the body's structures. CT scan (Choice C) combines X-rays and computer technology to create cross-sectional images of the body. X-ray (Choice D) uses electromagnetic radiation to produce images of the internal structures of the body, but it is not the most suitable for assessing the heart's structure and function.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

• A. Heart block
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

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