ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. What is a chronic condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened and enlarged, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?
- A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C. Myocarditis
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the weakening and enlargement of the heart muscle, leading to its reduced ability to pump blood effectively. This condition is different from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which involves abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, myocarditis, which is inflammation of the heart muscle, and pericarditis, which is inflammation of the pericardium. Therefore, the correct answer is Dilated cardiomyopathy.
2. Which chronic condition is characterized by abnormally thickened heart muscle, making it harder for the heart to pump blood efficiently?
- A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In this condition, the heart muscle becomes abnormally thickened, leading to difficulties in pumping blood efficiently. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement of the heart chambers, not thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, impairing its ability to fill properly. Ventricular hypertrophy (choice D) refers to the thickening of the heart's ventricle walls, which can result from various conditions, not solely hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
3. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours?
- A. Holter monitor
- B. Echocardiogram
- C. Stress test
- D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a portable device that records the electrical activity of the heart over a period of 24 to 48 hours. It is used to detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, Echocardiogram, is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function, not focused on the electrical activity. Choice C, Stress test, evaluates the heart's function under stress but does not monitor electrical activity over an extended period. Choice D, Arterial blood gas (ABG), measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, unrelated to measuring the electrical activity of the heart over time.
4. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.
5. When administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client, which lab value is most important to monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering furosemide (Lasix), it is crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with low potassium, such as cardiac arrhythmias. While monitoring sodium, calcium, and chloride levels may also be important in certain situations, potassium is the most critical to monitor when administering furosemide.
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