ATI RN
Physical Exam Cardiovascular System
1. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. How does the nurse explain this?
- A. This is a normal side effect of nitroglycerin.
- B. This is an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
- C. This is an indication of overdose.
- D. This is a sign of heart failure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'This is a normal side effect of nitroglycerin.' Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to nitroglycerin typically present with symptoms like rash, itching, or shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as an overdose of nitroglycerin would likely present with symptoms beyond just a headache. Choice D is incorrect because headaches related to nitroglycerin are not indicative of heart failure.
2. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.
3. Which neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic nervous system can decrease heart rate?
- A. Acetylcholine
- B. Norepinephrine
- C. Dopamine
- D. Serotonin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetylcholine is the correct answer. It is a neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic nervous system that can decrease heart rate. Norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin are neurotransmitters that usually have different effects on the body and are not specifically associated with decreasing heart rate. Norepinephrine, for example, is often related to the fight-or-flight response and can increase heart rate.
4. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer potassium supplements.
- C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
- D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.
5. The client is on enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. What side effect is most commonly associated with this medication?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril. ACE inhibitors can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. Hypotension (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common than a dry cough. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is another side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not the most commonly associated one. Headache (choice D) is not a common side effect of enalapril compared to a dry cough. Therefore, the most commonly associated side effect with enalapril is a dry cough.
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