the client on enoxaparin lovenox is scheduled for surgery what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The client on enoxaparin (Lovenox) is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider. Enoxaparin, being an anticoagulant, should be held before surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. It is crucial to inform the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering enoxaparin before surgery can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not typically indicated in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring the client's INR and proceeding with surgery without addressing the enoxaparin can lead to significant bleeding complications.

2. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a portable device that records the electrical activity of the heart over a period of 24 to 48 hours. It is used to detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, Echocardiogram, is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function, not focused on the electrical activity. Choice C, Stress test, evaluates the heart's function under stress but does not monitor electrical activity over an extended period. Choice D, Arterial blood gas (ABG), measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, unrelated to measuring the electrical activity of the heart over time.

3. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

4. This is a test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, often used to assess respiratory function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, helping to assess respiratory and cardiovascular function. Choice B, Spirometry, measures lung function by assessing airflow and volume. Choice C, Arterial blood gas (ABG), evaluates the acidity, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Choice D, Lung function test, is a broad term that may include various tests to assess lung health, but specifically measuring oxygen saturation is done through pulse oximetry.

5. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.

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