the client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath what is the nurses best response
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. The client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath, it can be indicative of pulmonary toxicity, a severe side effect associated with this medication. The nurse's priority is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Choice B is incorrect because shortness of breath with amiodarone should not be dismissed as a common side effect. Instructing the client to monitor symptoms at home (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Suggesting the client reduce physical activity (Choice D) does not address the potential serious nature of the symptom and the need for prompt evaluation.

2. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

3. What condition is characterized by the inflammation of the heart's outer lining, often causing chest pain and other symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pericarditis is the correct answer because it is the inflammation of the pericardium, the outer lining of the heart. This condition commonly presents with symptoms like chest pain. Endocarditis (choice B) is the inflammation of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Myocarditis (choice C) is the inflammation of the heart muscle itself. Valvular heart disease (choice D) refers to various conditions affecting the heart valves, not specifically the outer lining of the heart.

4. Which condition involves the heart muscle becoming abnormally thickened, reducing its ability to pump blood?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. In this condition, the heart muscle thickens, leading to a decreased ability to pump blood effectively. Choice B, Dilated cardiomyopathy, is characterized by the heart chambers enlarging and weakening. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, involves the heart muscle becoming rigid and less compliant. Choice D, Ischemic cardiomyopathy, is when the heart muscle is weakened due to reduced blood flow.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

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