Nursing Elites

1. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache.
• B. Hold the next dose of nitroglycerin.
• C. Discontinue the nitroglycerin immediately.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.

2. What is a chronic condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become inflamed and narrowed, often caused by smoking?

• A. Chronic bronchitis
• B. Emphysema
• C. Asthma
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer because it is a long-term condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, commonly triggered by smoking. Emphysema involves damage to the air sacs in the lungs, not specifically the bronchial tubes. Asthma is a condition of reversible airway obstruction usually due to allergies or other triggers, not solely smoking. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is not directly related to inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes.

3. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.

4. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

5. What diagnostic procedure uses sound waves to create images of the heart and assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An echocardiogram is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic procedure that uses sound waves to create images of the heart, enabling doctors to assess its structure and function. This imaging technique is specifically designed for cardiac assessment. MRI (Choice B), CT scan (Choice C), and X-ray (Choice D) are imaging modalities that are not primarily used for detailed evaluation of the heart's structure and function, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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