Nursing Elites

1. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s vital signs
• B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
• C. Begin iced saline lavage
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.

2. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position herself?

• A. At the client's back
• B. At the client's right side
• C. At the client's left side
• D. In front of a sitting client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position herself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Placing oneself in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as positioning at the back or sides of the client may hinder proper assessment due to limited visibility and access to the neck area.

3. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

5. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

• A. Obtain a court order for the surgery
• B. Sign the informed consent on behalf of the client
• C. Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed
• D. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers, is the best course of action. This ensures that the client's best interests are considered and that proper authorization is obtained. Option A, obtaining a court order, is not necessary in this scenario and could delay the surgery. Option B, signing the consent on behalf of the client, is not appropriate as it may raise ethical and legal concerns. Option C, sending the client to surgery without a signed consent form, is not advisable as it violates the principles of informed consent and places the client at risk.

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