ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.
2. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?
- A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
- B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
- C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
- D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.
3. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?
- A. At the client's back
- B. At the client's right side
- C. At the client's left side
- D. In front of a sitting client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.
4. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?
- A. FSB
- B. CSH
- C. GH
- D. FH
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.
5. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
- A. High-protein
- B. High-carbohydrate
- C. Low-protein
- D. Low-fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.