Nursing Elites

1. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.

2. In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?

• A. Pulling the curtain around the client’s bed while changing a dressing
• B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
• C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.

3. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?

• A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
• B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
• C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
• D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To obtain accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine, the nurse should instruct the patient to collect the first 15 mL of urine in one container and the subsequent 50 mL in another. This method ensures that the specimens are separated appropriately for analysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because collecting three early morning urine specimens, massaging the prostate, or collecting a routine urine specimen would not provide the specific separation of urethral and bladder urine required for this particular test.

4. People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for the treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in:

• A. Folate
• B. Tyramine
• C. Potassium
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tyramine. When individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) consume foods high in tyramine, it can lead to a potentially dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Foods high in tyramine include aged cheeses, cured meats, and certain fermented foods. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Folate, potassium, and vitamin K are not typically contraindicated with the use of MAOIs.

5. In patients with heart failure, which type of diet is most recommended?

• A. High-sodium
• B. Low-sodium
• C. High-fat
• D. Low-carbohydrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, a low-sodium diet is most recommended. This type of diet helps manage fluid retention by reducing the amount of sodium in the body. Excess sodium can lead to fluid accumulation, putting additional strain on the heart. High-sodium diets can exacerbate symptoms of heart failure by causing fluid retention and increasing blood pressure. High-fat and low-carbohydrate diets are not specifically recommended for heart failure patients and may not address the underlying issues related to fluid balance and heart function.

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