ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.
2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
- A. Red meat
- B. Chicken
- C. Fish
- D. Dairy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A patient with a history of gout should avoid foods high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Red meat is particularly high in purines, so it is the type of food that should be avoided. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally not associated with triggering gout attacks, so they can be consumed in moderation by patients with gout.
3. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
- A. The pancreas
- B. The adrenal cortex
- C. The adrenal medulla
- D. The anterior pituitary gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.
4. Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In nursing care, implementation involves carrying out and supervising the planned procedures for the patient. This step focuses on putting the care plan into action. Choice A, Evaluation, involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, not performing procedures. Choice B, Planning, is about developing a plan of care, not executing it. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to determine the patient's needs, not the step involving performing and supervising procedures.
5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
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