a nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who has migraine headaches and is to begin prophylaxis therapy with propranolol which of the follo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

2. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

3. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.

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