ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Morphine
- C. Aspirin (ASA)
- D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.
2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
- B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 min.
- C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
- D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hr of manifestation onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.
3. How do ACE inhibitors work?
- A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
- B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
- C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.
4. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?
- A. Metallic taste
- B. Nausea
- C. Ataxia
- D. Dark-colored urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.
5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.
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