ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed
- B. Administer half of the normal dose
- C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
- D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.
2. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Rinse your mouth after each use.
- D. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rinse your mouth after each use.' Beclomethasone can cause oral candidiasis (thrush) as an adverse effect. Rinsing the mouth after each use helps reduce the risk of developing thrush by removing any residue of the medication from the mouth, which can promote fungal growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with meals, increasing calcium-rich foods intake, or limiting fluid intake are not specific instructions related to minimizing the side effect of oral candidiasis associated with Beclomethasone.
3. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.
4. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
- B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
- C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
- D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.
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