a nurse is about to administer propanolol to a patient the nurse takes the patients apical pulse and documents it as 58 bmp how should the nurse conti
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023

1. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. To prevent this, clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges, to replenish potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting calcium-rich foods or avoiding milk is not necessary with Furosemide, and increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables does not specifically address the potential potassium loss associated with this medication.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.

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