Nursing Elites

1. The chief mechanism for maintaining fluid balance is to:

• A. adjust fluid intake so it equals fluid output.
• B. adjust fluid intake so it is slightly above fluid output.
• C. adjust fluid output so it equals fluid input.
• D. adjust fluid intake so it is slightly below fluid output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'adjust fluid output so it equals fluid input.' Maintaining fluid balance involves ensuring that the amount of fluid lost through processes like urination, sweating, and respiration equals the amount of fluid taken in. This ensures that the body stays properly hydrated. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not focus on the balance between fluid input and output, which is crucial for maintaining proper fluid balance. By adjusting fluid output to equal fluid input, the body can regulate hydration levels effectively, preventing dehydration or overhydration.

2. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

3. . A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in decreased urine output.
• D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. Place a washcloth between the skin and tourniquet

• A. Provide a bed bath instead of letting the client take a shower
• B. Use sterile technique when changing the dressing.
• C. Disconnect the intravenous fluid tubing prior to the clients bath.
• D. Use a plastic bag to cover the extremity with the device

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. While assessing a patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

• A. Air emboli
• B. Phlebitis
• C. Infiltration
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue, typically due to the dislodgement or perforation of the vein wall by the IV cannula. It is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid, discomfort, coolness, and a decrease in flow rate. In this scenario, the presence of edema indicates infiltration, not air emboli, phlebitis, or fluid overload. Air emboli refer to air bubbles in the bloodstream, phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and fluid overload is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.

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