Nursing Elites

1. The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?

• A. Apoptosis
• B. Contact inhibition
• C. Stable cells
• D. Labile cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.

2. Nurse Jane is providing care for a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Which of the following interventions would be the priority?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed
• B. Administer steroids as prescribed
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the pressure on the superior vena cava, improve venous return, and facilitate breathing in clients with superior vena cava syndrome. Administering steroids (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority in the immediate care of a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may help improve oxygenation but does not directly address the underlying issue of venous congestion. Administering diuretics (Choice D) may be contraindicated as it can further decrease preload and worsen the condition in superior vena cava syndrome.

3. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

4. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just received a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Risk for bleeding
• B. Risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Risk for infection is a high priority due to the patient's compromised immune system from AML.

5. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia
• C. Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response
• D. Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) undergo intensive chemotherapy and/or radiation, which significantly suppresses their immune system. This immunosuppression leads to a heightened risk for infection, making it the most critical nursing diagnosis for these patients. As the body’s ability to fight off pathogens is compromised, close monitoring and interventions aimed at preventing infections are essential for their safety and recovery.

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