Nursing Elites

1. All of the following are warning signs of cancer except:

• A. Patient palpates a bump on the side of the breast
• B. Bruises are found on the body that the client cannot explain
• C. Patient often complains of impaired digestion
• D. Patient has blood-tinged sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blood-tinged sputum is not a typical warning sign of cancer but rather a symptom that can indicate other serious conditions like respiratory issues or infections. Choices A, B, and C are common warning signs of cancer: palpable lumps or bumps, unexplained bruises, and persistent digestive issues are often associated with cancer and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional for further assessment and diagnosis.

2. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Alopecia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
• B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
• C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
• D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. Option A (TPN) and B (PEG tube placement) are more invasive interventions and should be considered if non-oral routes are necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the primary responsibility for a patient's nutrition should lie with healthcare professionals to ensure proper management and monitoring.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

• A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
• B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
• C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
• D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

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