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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. What is the average cardiac output?
- A. Approximately 4 to 6 L per minute
- B. Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute
- C. Approximately 5 to 8 L per minute
- D. Approximately 3 to 7 L per minute
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute. Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute, typically ranging between 4 to 8 liters. Choices A, C, and D provide ranges that are either too narrow or outside the standard average values for cardiac output, making them incorrect.
2. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Creatinine
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
4. Which condition is characterized by an inability to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid buildup and swelling in the body?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Cardiomyopathy
- C. Angina
- D. Myocarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heart failure is the correct answer. It is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, resulting in fluid accumulation and swelling in the body. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that affects its ability to pump blood but is not the specific condition described in the question. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, not directly related to fluid buildup and swelling. Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle and does not necessarily involve the inability to pump blood effectively.
5. What is the procedure where a catheter is used to open a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent?
- A. Angioplasty
- B. Valve replacement
- C. Stent placement
- D. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure where a catheter is used to open a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent to keep the artery open and improve blood flow to the heart. Choice B, Valve replacement, is incorrect as it involves replacing a heart valve, not opening a blocked artery. Choice C, Stent placement, is similar to angioplasty but not as specific, as it does not involve the catheter-based procedure. Choice D, Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), is a different procedure where blocked arteries are bypassed using a blood vessel from another part of the body.
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