Nursing Elites

1. This medication type is used to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing blood pressure.

• A. Vasodilator
• B. Anticoagulant
• C. Diuretic
• D. Beta-blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasodilator. Vasodilators are medications that work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which improves blood flow and reduces blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions. Anticoagulants (choice B) are medications that prevent blood clot formation, diuretics (choice C) increase urine production to reduce fluid retention, and beta-blockers (choice D) reduce heart rate and workload on the heart. These mechanisms differ from the action of vasodilators.

2. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

3. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

4. What is a chronic condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become inflamed and narrowed, often caused by smoking?

• A. Chronic bronchitis
• B. Emphysema
• C. Asthma
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer because it is a long-term condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, commonly triggered by smoking. Emphysema involves damage to the air sacs in the lungs, not specifically the bronchial tubes. Asthma is a condition of reversible airway obstruction usually due to allergies or other triggers, not solely smoking. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is not directly related to inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes.

5. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Increased cardiac output
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

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