ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When is sterile technique used?
- A. During strict isolation procedures
- B. After terminal disinfection is performed
- C. For invasive procedures
- D. When protective isolation is necessary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.
2. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...
- A. On the client's skin
- B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
- C. Under the client's tongue
- D. On the client's conjunctiva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.
3. During the assessment of a client receiving packed RBCs, which finding indicates fluid overload?
- A. Low back pain.
- B. Dyspnea.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Thready pulse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dyspnea is a key finding indicating fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. Fluid overload can lead to pulmonary edema, causing difficulty breathing or shortness of breath (dyspnea). Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload but can be more related to musculoskeletal issues. Hypotension and thready pulse are more indicative of hypovolemia (low fluid volume), not fluid overload.
4. When teaching a client with tuberculosis, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. You will need to continue taking the multi-medication regimen for 4 months.
- B. You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment.
- D. You will need to wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis medication is crucial to ensure the treatment is working properly. Regular sputum samples help in assessing the response to the medication. This monitoring can guide adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Options A and C are incorrect as they do not reflect essential aspects of tuberculosis treatment. Option D is not a standard recommendation for tuberculosis treatment and may lead to misconceptions.
5. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
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