ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When is sterile technique used?
- A. During strict isolation procedures
- B. After terminal disinfection is performed
- C. For invasive procedures
- D. When protective isolation is necessary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.
2. Which of the following actions should be taken to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair?
- A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift
- B. Face the client, bend knees, and place hands on the client’s forearm and lift
- C. Spread the feet apart
- D. Tighten the pelvic muscles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spread the feet apart. When assisting a client to get up in a chair, it is crucial to use a wide base of support to maintain stability and prevent injuries. Spreading the feet apart provides a broader base, increasing balance and support for both the client and the caregiver. This position helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control when assisting the client in moving. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bending at the waist, placing arms under the client's arms, tightening pelvic muscles, or placing hands on the client's forearm do not provide the necessary wide base support needed for stability and safety during the transfer process.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The provider notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Withhold the next dose
- B. Increase the dosage
- C. Discontinue the medication
- D. Administer the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for maintaining the drug's effectiveness while minimizing toxicity. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to continue administering the medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to maintain the therapeutic effect for the client.
4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?
- A. Client who has dysphagia
- B. Client who has AIDS
- C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
- D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.
5. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:
- A. 0.6 mg
- B. 10 mg
- C. 60 mg
- D. 600 mg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access