ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
- B. Using a water or air mattress
- C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
- D. Providing meticulous skin care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.
2. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
3. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
- B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
- C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.
4. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing
- A. Baseline vital signs
- B. Systolic blood pressure
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Apical pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing the apical pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is typically at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This technique allows healthcare providers to accurately assess the heart rate and rhythm by listening to the heart sounds directly at this point.
5. In Maslow’s hierarchy of physiological needs, the human need of greatest priority is:
- A. Love
- B. Elimination
- C. Nutrition
- D. Oxygen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Maslow’s hierarchy of physiological needs, the most basic and immediate need is physiological survival, which includes the need for oxygen. Without oxygen, the body cannot survive for more than a few minutes, making it the highest priority physiological need according to Maslow's hierarchy.
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