ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
2. During discharge teaching, a client informs the nurse about a new prescription for prednisone for asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding in teaching?
- A. I will decrease my fluid intake while taking this medication.
- B. I will expect to have black, tarry stools.
- C. I will take my medication with meals.
- D. I will monitor for weight loss while on this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking prednisone with meals can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and irritation. It is important for the client to understand how to take the medication correctly to maximize its effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. Monitoring for weight loss or changes in stools may be important but does not directly relate to the administration of the medication with meals.
3. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
- A. 4,500/mm³
- B. 7,000/mm³
- C. 10,000/mm³
- D. 25,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
- B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
- C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
- D. A client who has dysphagia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
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