Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions may necessitate fluid restriction?

• A. Fever
• B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
• C. Renal Failure
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Renal failure often necessitates fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter and excrete excess fluids, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Restricting fluid intake helps manage this condition by preventing further fluid buildup and complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances.

2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

4. A nurse is talking with another nurse on the unit and smells alcohol on her breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Confront the nurse about the suspected alcohol use.
• B. Inform another nurse on the unit about the suspected alcohol use.
• C. Ask the nurse to finish administering medications and then go home.
• D. Notify the nursing manager about the suspected alcohol use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confronting the nurse about the suspected alcohol use is the most appropriate action in this situation. It is essential to address the issue directly and express concerns about patient safety and potential impairment. By addressing the situation promptly, the nurse can potentially prevent harm and provide support to the colleague in need.

5. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?

• A. Non-rebreather mask
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Nasal cannula
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.

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