ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023
1. What are the potential consequences of damage to the stomach?
- A. Reduced digestion of carbohydrates
- B. Inability to produce or secrete bile
- C. Inability to produce or secrete gastric acid
- D. Increased ability to produce or secrete intrinsic factor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Damage to the stomach can lead to a reduced ability to produce gastric acid (Choice C) and intrinsic factor, the latter of which is crucial for vitamin B12 absorption (Choice D). That's why these two choices are correct. The stomach doesn't play a direct role in the digestion of carbohydrates (Choice A) as this process primarily occurs in the small intestine with the help of pancreatic enzymes. Similarly, bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, not the stomach, hence stomach damage wouldn't lead to an inability to produce or secrete bile (Choice B).
2. The nurse is educating a client about foods high in antioxidants A and C. Which breakfast items chosen by the client would indicate that the education was sufficient?
- A. Fried eggs, sausage, and whole wheat toast
- B. Oatmeal with blueberries and coffee
- C. Cereal with strawberries and low-fat milk
- D. Hard-boiled eggs, cantaloupe, and orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hard-boiled eggs, cantaloupe, and orange juice are high in antioxidants A and C.
3. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
4. Selective inattention is seen in which level of anxiety?
- A. Mild
- B. Moderate
- C. Severe
- D. Panic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Selective inattention is a defense mechanism seen in panic-level anxiety. In panic anxiety, individuals may experience selective inattention, where they focus only on specific aspects and ignore others. Mild anxiety does not typically involve selective inattention as individuals can still function effectively. Moderate and severe anxiety may impair attention, but selective inattention is more characteristic of panic-level anxiety.
5. What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?
- A. Transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Fractures
- D. Hypertension and increased heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access