Nursing Elites

1. Select all that apply. Characteristics of the 2 main types of essential fatty acids discussed in class include:

• A. they must be supplied by the diet
• B. they can be produced by a process called dehydrogenation
• C. they are anti-inflammatory
• D. they are all polyunsaturated fatty acids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'they must be supplied by the diet.' Essential fatty acids, like omega-3 and omega-6, cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. They are polyunsaturated fatty acids, playing vital roles in inflammation and cell membrane structure. Choice B is incorrect because essential fatty acids cannot be produced by dehydrogenation, a process of removing hydrogen. Choice C is incorrect as not all essential fatty acids are anti-inflammatory; some have pro-inflammatory roles. Choice D is incorrect because not all essential fatty acids are polyunsaturated; omega-9, for example, is a monounsaturated essential fatty acid.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who reports muscle spasms in his calves and tingling in his hands. The client indicates consuming a low intake of milk products and green leafy vegetables. The nurse should identify that the client's findings indicate a deficiency in which of the following sources of nutrition?

• A. Iron
• B. Omega-3 fatty acids
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Calcium. Muscle spasms and tingling suggest a calcium deficiency, which is commonly associated with a low intake of milk products and green leafy vegetables. Iron (choice A) deficiency typically presents with fatigue and weakness, not muscle spasms and tingling. Omega-3 fatty acids (choice B) are essential for brain function and heart health, but their deficiency does not manifest as muscle spasms and tingling. Vitamin C (choice C) deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums and bruising, not muscle spasms and tingling.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following lab values indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. Hct 43%
• B. WBC 8,000/uL
• C. Albumin 4.2 g/dL
• D. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Albumin 4.2 g/dL. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of nutritional status. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), an increase in albumin level indicates that the treatment is effective in providing adequate nutrition support. Hct (hematocrit), WBC (white blood cell count), and calcium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN in this context.

4. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is associated with which vitamin deficiency?

• A. Thiamine (B1)
• B. Riboflavin (B2)
• C. Niacin (B3)
• D. Pyridoxine (B6)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is indeed associated with thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. This syndrome is commonly seen in individuals with chronic alcoholism due to poor diet and impaired thiamine absorption. Thiamine is essential for normal brain function and energy metabolism. Riboflavin (B2) deficiency can lead to symptoms like sore throat and swollen mucous membranes, not Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Niacin (B3) deficiency causes pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death, but not Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency can result in dermatitis, glossitis, and peripheral neuropathy, but it is not associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

5. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be associated with increased risk of macular degeneration?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B12
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin E

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin E is an antioxidant that helps protect eye health and prevent macular degeneration.

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