ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Cholesterol level.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Blood glucose level.
- D. Calcium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.
3. Following a stroke, a client has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). Why is this medication being administered?
- A. To prevent stroke in high-risk patients, such as those with prosthetic heart valves
- B. To decrease blood pressure
- C. To increase heart rate
- D. To provide antiplatelet activity in patients who cannot tolerate aspirin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots. It is commonly used in patients who have had a stroke and cannot tolerate aspirin due to allergies or intolerances. Choosing clopidogrel in these cases helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of recurrent strokes.
4. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum glucose. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring serum glucose levels is essential to assess for elevated blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Prednisone does not directly affect potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.
5. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Weigh yourself daily.
- C. Take potassium supplements as needed.
- D. Decrease intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.
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