ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Cholesterol level.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Blood glucose level.
- D. Calcium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.
2. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.
3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.
4. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucosamine
- B. Saw palmetto
- C. Kava
- D. St. John's wort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should report kava to the provider because chronic use or high doses of kava can lead to liver damage, including severe liver failure. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant about any herbal supplement that could potentially worsen the client's liver condition.
5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with grapefruit juice.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.
- C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions. Patients should monitor their blood pressure and heart rate regularly to assess the medication's effectiveness and check for adverse effects like bradycardia or hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because Atenolol should not be taken with grapefruit juice, which can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Atenolol typically causes a decrease in heart rate, not a rapid heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Atenolol.
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