ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Cholesterol level.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Blood glucose level.
- D. Calcium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum sodium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.
3. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?
- A. Headaches
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Projectile vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.
4. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with a meal to reduce gastric irritation.
- D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if difficulty swallowing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation. It is important to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with a meal or crushing the tablet are not recommended instructions for alendronate administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the proper administration guidelines for alendronate.
5. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
- A. Morphine
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Hydromorphone
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.
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