Nursing Elites

1. Proteolytic enzymes are most likely to break down which food type?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Proteins
• C. Fats
• D. Lipids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proteolytic enzymes target proteins for breakdown into amino acids. Carbohydrates are broken down by enzymes like amylase, while fats are broken down by lipase. Lipids, which include fats, are not specifically targeted by proteolytic enzymes.

2. During the detoxification stage, it is a priority for the nurse to:

• A. teach skills to recognize and respond to health threatening situations
• B. increase the client’s awareness of unsatisfactory protective behaviors
• C. implement behavior modification
• D. promote homeostasis and minimize the client’s withdrawal symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. A nurse is developing a program about strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that does not apply).

• A. Keep cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F).
• B. Reheat leftovers before eating.
• C. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water.
• D. Keep cooked foods at 48.9°C (120°F).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep cooked foods at 48.9°C (120°F). This temperature is too low to keep cooked foods safe from bacterial growth. The ideal temperature to keep cooked foods safe is above 60°C (140°F). Choices A, B, and C are all important strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses. Keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) helps prevent bacterial growth, reheating leftovers before eating kills any bacteria that may have grown during storage, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water helps remove dirt and bacteria.

4. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

5. Fat-soluble vitamins are different from water-soluble vitamins because the body is able to store only small amounts of fat-soluble vitamins.

• A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
• B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
• C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
• D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct. A major difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins is that the body is able to store larger amounts of fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins A and D are stored for long periods; therefore, minor shortages might not be identified until drastic depletion has occurred. Observable signs and symptoms of a dietary deficiency are often not identified until they are in an advanced state. Water-soluble vitamins, on the other hand, are not stored in the body and are excreted in the urine if taken in excess, making it harder to reach toxic levels.

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