primary hypercholesteremia is often a result of
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.

3. When administering an immunization, which of the following medications should be available?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering an immunization, it is essential to have epinephrine available in case of an allergic reaction such as anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the medication of choice for treating severe allergic reactions due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine are antihistamines that can help manage mild allergic reactions but are not the primary medications for severe reactions like anaphylaxis. Physostigmine is not indicated for managing allergic reactions and is used for specific conditions such as anticholinergic toxicity.

4. A 44-year-old man presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. He states that he has experienced difficulty climbing stairs and even holding his arms up to comb his hair. Which test is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electromyography (EMG). EMG is commonly used to diagnose conditions involving muscle weakness and fatigue, such as myasthenia gravis. Nerve conduction studies primarily assess nerve function rather than muscle involvement. While a muscle biopsy can provide valuable information, EMG is more specific for evaluating muscle function in this context. A blood test for autoantibodies may be helpful in certain autoimmune conditions but is not the primary test for confirming the diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue.

5. An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempting to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patient's inflammation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the vascular stage of inflammation, there is an outpouring of exudate into the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling and edema. Choice B, chemotaxis, occurs during the cellular stage of inflammation, where leukocytes move to the site of injury in response to chemical signals. Choice C, accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium, is not a typical event during the vascular stage. Phagocytosis of cellular debris, as in choice D, mainly occurs during the resolution stage of inflammation.

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