ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?
- A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) defects
- B. Monogenic mutations, sedentary lifestyle, and high cholesterol diet
- C. Polygenic mutations and environmental factors
- D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.
2. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
- D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.
3. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?
- A. Increased urine retention
- B. Insufficient circulating blood volume
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.
4. How does tamsulosin (Flomax) primarily benefit male patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
- B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
- C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
- D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamsulosin works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, which helps improve urinary flow in patients with BPH. This relaxation reduces the symptoms associated with BPH, such as urinary hesitancy, urgency, and frequency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate gland. Choice C is incorrect as while tamsulosin does improve urine flow, its primary mechanism of action is through muscle relaxation rather than directly relieving obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function; its main therapeutic effect is targeted towards urinary symptoms related to BPH.
5. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be stopped if side effects occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it is typically prescribed continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not stop the medication if side effects occur without consulting their healthcare provider.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access