Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?

• A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) defects
• B. Monogenic mutations, sedentary lifestyle, and high cholesterol diet
• C. Polygenic mutations and environmental factors
• D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.

2. What causes secondary brain injury after head trauma?

• A. Brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage
• B. Brain injury resulting from initial trauma
• C. Injury as a result of medical therapy
• D. Focal areas of bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary brain injury occurs due to the body's response to the initial trauma, which can worsen the effects of the primary injury. This response includes processes like inflammation, increased intracranial pressure, and reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the primary trauma itself, not the secondary injury. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to injury caused by medical interventions rather than the body's response. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions focal areas of bleeding, which is a consequence of trauma rather than the cause of secondary brain injury.

3. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

4. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

• A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
• B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
• C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
• D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

5. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Migraine headache
• B. Cluster headache
• C. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
• D. Sinus headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.

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