a client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision which cranial nerve is most likel
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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

3. What causes secondary brain injury after head trauma?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary brain injury occurs due to the body's response to the initial trauma, which can worsen the effects of the primary injury. This response includes processes like inflammation, increased intracranial pressure, and reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the primary trauma itself, not the secondary injury. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to injury caused by medical interventions rather than the body's response. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions focal areas of bleeding, which is a consequence of trauma rather than the cause of secondary brain injury.

4. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.

5. A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

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