Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

2. What should the nurse teach the boy about anabolic steroid abuse?

• A. The ability of anabolic steroids to build muscle is greatly exaggerated in the media.
• B. Anabolic steroids are universally dangerous but are especially harmful to adolescents.
• C. The muscle mass resulting from steroid use will atrophy unless doses are continually increased.
• D. Anabolic steroids will reduce the boy's ability to perform weight-bearing exercise later in life.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because anabolic steroids are indeed universally dangerous, but they pose greater risks to adolescents due to their impact on growth and development. Choice A is incorrect because anabolic steroids do have the potential to build muscle mass, though not to the extent often portrayed in the media. Choice C is incorrect as muscle mass gained from steroid use may persist for a period even after discontinuation. Choice D is incorrect as anabolic steroids can enhance muscle performance initially, though long-term use can have adverse effects on health and not specifically on the ability to perform weight-bearing exercises.

3. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

• A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
• B. To prevent osteoporosis
• C. To increase calcium absorption
• D. To maintain bone strength

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

5. When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.

• A. A only
• B. B only
• C. A and B
• D. O

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.

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