Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

2. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
• B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
• C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
• D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.

3. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?

• A. The client is a smoker.
• B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
• C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
• D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.

4. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

• A. is normal with no sickle cell disease.
• B. is a sickle cell carrier.
• C. has sickle cell anemia.
• D. has thalassemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the person is a sickle cell carrier. In HbAS, 'Hb' stands for hemoglobin, 'A' indicates normal hemoglobin, and 'S' indicates the sickle cell trait. Individuals with HbAS are carriers of the sickle cell trait but do not have sickle cell disease. Choice A is incorrect because having the sickle cell trait means carrying the gene for sickle cell disease. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is a different condition where individuals have two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene, resulting in the disease. Choice D is incorrect because thalassemia is a separate genetic disorder affecting the production of hemoglobin, not related to the sickle cell trait.

5. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?

• A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
• B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
• C. Changes in speech and reasoning
• D. Increased intracranial pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.

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