ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?
- A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
- B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
- C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
- D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.
2. Which of the following women is at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?
- A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
- B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods
- C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension
- D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.
3. What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When teaching a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis, the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct because it addresses this key point. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently but not necessarily with food. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider is not advisable. Option D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.
4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of bone fractures
- C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
- D. Increased risk of mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.
5. What is the primary role of albumin in the blood?
- A. Transport oxygen throughout the body.
- B. Serve as a key clotting factor.
- C. Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance.
- D. Act as an immune response molecule.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure by helping to retain fluid within the blood vessels. This function is essential for regulating blood volume and preventing fluid from leaking out into tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because albumin is not primarily responsible for transporting oxygen, acting as a clotting factor, or functioning as an immune response molecule in the blood.
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