Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

2. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

• A. Destruction of proteoglycans
• B. Underexcretion of uric acid
• C. Overexcretion of uric acid
• D. Increased absorption of uric acid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. In gouty arthritis, the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the affected joint is caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to the accumulation and subsequent crystallization of urate crystals. Choice A, destruction of proteoglycans, is incorrect as it is not directly related to the crystallization process in gouty arthritis. Choice C, overexcretion of uric acid, is incorrect because gout is primarily associated with underexcretion or decreased excretion of uric acid rather than overexcretion. Choice D, increased absorption of uric acid, is also incorrect as the primary issue in gouty arthritis is the body's inability to properly eliminate uric acid.

3. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT can decrease the risk of osteoporosis, but the patient should also be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so the patient should undergo regular breast exams.
• D. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also carries a risk of cardiovascular events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because although HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, the focus of concern in this case is the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the risk of breast cancer, which is not the primary concern when discussing HRT with a patient with a history of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as it mentions cardiovascular events, which are not the main focus of risk associated with HRT in this scenario.

4. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

• A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
• B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
• C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
• D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.

5. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

• A. Sputum culture
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest x-ray
• D. CT scan of the chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

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