Nursing Elites

1. Organizations are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. This defines which of the following theories?

• A. Contingency theory
• B. Closed system theory
• C. Open system theory
• D. Chaos theory

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Chaos theory. Chaos theory is characterized by organizations that are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. Contingency theory (choice A) is based on the idea that there is no one best way to organize and manage a corporation. Closed system theory (choice B) refers to systems that are closed off from the outside environment and do not interact with it. Open system theory (choice C) views organizations as open systems that interact with their external environment.

2. Which of the following is a key component of a successful quality improvement (QI) project?

• A. Standardized care protocols
• B. Employee satisfaction
• C. Ongoing training and education
• D. Financial incentives

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ongoing training and education is the correct answer as it is an essential component of a successful quality improvement project. Continuous training and education help ensure that staff are knowledgeable about and up-to-date with the latest practices, technologies, and methodologies in healthcare. This ongoing learning process contributes to improving the quality of care provided.\nChoice A, standardized care protocols, though important, is more about ensuring consistency in care delivery rather than driving quality improvement initiatives. Choice B, employee satisfaction, while significant for staff morale, is not directly related to the core processes of quality improvement projects. Choice D, financial incentives, although motivating, are not the primary driver for successful quality improvement projects; it is the knowledge and skills gained through training and education that play a more critical role in enhancing quality.

3. The nurse manager is talking with the CNA about her time management. Which of the following is an example of a nurse manager as a coach?

• A. Your timely response to patients' call lights is exemplary.
• B. Your appearance is seldom professional.
• C. You must get the vital signs taken on time or you will be disciplined.
• D. You never report AM blood sugar levels on time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your timely response to patients' call lights is exemplary.' This choice reflects a positive reinforcement approach, providing feedback that praises and encourages good behavior. A coach in a professional setting aims to motivate, guide, and support staff rather than focusing on negative aspects or threats of discipline. Effective coaching involves recognizing and acknowledging employees' strengths and achievements to inspire continuous improvement and development. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of coaching as they either focus on criticism regarding appearance, use threatening language, or highlight a negative behavior without offering guidance or support.

4. A few weeks after an 82-year-old with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been placed on metformin (Glucophage) therapy and taught about appropriate diet and exercise, the home health nurse makes a visit. Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C level is 7.9%.
• B. Last eye exam was 18 months ago.
• C. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased.
• D. Patient has questions about the prescribed diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important finding to discuss with the healthcare provider is the decreased glomerular filtration rate. In patients on metformin therapy, monitoring kidney function is crucial as metformin is primarily excreted through the kidneys. A decreased glomerular filtration rate can lead to metformin accumulation in the body, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious adverse effect. The hemoglobin A1C level being 7.9% indicates poor diabetes control but can be addressed through medication adjustments and lifestyle modifications. The patient needing an eye exam after 18 months is important but not as urgent as discussing the decreased glomerular filtration rate. Patient questions about the prescribed diet can be addressed during the visit without the need for immediate healthcare provider intervention.

5. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?

• A. Assess an applicant's motivation
• B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
• C. Assess an applicant's skills
• D. Assess an applicant's ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.

Similar Questions