Nursing Elites

1. Which leadership style is most effective in a crisis situation?

• A. Democratic
• B. Autocratic
• C. Transformational
• D. Laissez-faire

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An autocratic leadership style is most effective in a crisis situation because it allows for quick decision-making without the need for extensive consultation or deliberation. In a crisis, immediate and decisive actions are often required to address the situation effectively. Democratic leadership, on the other hand, may slow down the decision-making process due to the need for consensus and input from team members. Transformational leadership focuses on inspiring and motivating followers, which may not always be as effective in a crisis where urgent actions are needed. Laissez-faire leadership, characterized by a hands-off approach, is generally ineffective in crisis situations as it lacks the necessary direction and guidance required to navigate through the challenges efficiently.

2. If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

• A. Authority
• B. Planning
• C. Organizing
• D. Controlling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Authority When a task is delegated, it is essential to grant the individual the authority to complete it. Authority refers to the power or right to give commands, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Planning (choice B), organizing (choice C), and controlling (choice D) are important aspects of management but do not directly address the need for authorization to carry out a delegated task.

3. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

4. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working in the diabetic clinic?

• A. Measure the ankle-brachial index.
• B. Check for changes in skin pigmentation.
• C. Assess for unilateral or bilateral foot drop.
• D. Ask the patient about symptoms of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure the ankle-brachial index. This task involves using a Doppler ultrasound device to assess blood flow, which can be safely delegated to UAP. Choices B, C, and D require a higher level of assessment and interpretation that should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Checking for changes in skin pigmentation (B) and assessing for foot drop (C) involve more complex assessments that require nursing judgment. Asking about symptoms of depression (D) involves a psychosocial assessment, which should be performed by licensed personnel qualified to address mental health concerns.

5. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12%
• B. 23-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL
• C. 40-year-old who is pregnant and has an oral glucose tolerance test result of 202 mg/dL
• D. 50-year-old who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is complaining of acute abdominal pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.

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