Nursing Elites

1. One potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is:

• A. Stomach irritation and bleeding
• B. Stomatitis and esophagitis
• C. Impaired folate absorption
• D. Increased potassium excretion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can lead to stomach irritation and bleeding by affecting the gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (choice B) are not commonly associated with NSAIDs. Impaired folate absorption (choice C) is not a typical side effect of NSAIDs. Increased potassium excretion (choice D) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.

2. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

• A. The pancreas
• B. The adrenal cortex
• C. The adrenal medulla
• D. The anterior pituitary gland

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.

3. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

4. The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals
• B. Explain the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods
• C. Teach the client how to perform gentle perianal care
• D. Encourage the client to see a psychologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing option B, explaining the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods, is the correct intervention to reduce IBS symptoms. Flatus-forming foods can worsen bloating and discomfort in individuals with IBS. Option A, instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals, may be helpful for other conditions but is not a primary intervention for IBS. Option C, teaching perianal care, is not directly related to reducing IBS symptoms. Option D, encouraging the client to see a psychologist, may be beneficial for managing stress related to IBS but is not the initial intervention to reduce symptoms.

5. The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering?

• A. Paracentesis
• B. Chest tube insertion
• C. Lumbar puncture
• D. Biopsy of the pancreas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. In the context of a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing, a chest tube may be needed if the pseudocyst extends into the pleural space, leading to a pleural effusion. Choice A, paracentesis, involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not the pleural space. Choice C, lumbar puncture, is a procedure performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant in this scenario. Choice D, biopsy of the pancreas, is not indicated in the immediate management of a ruptured pseudocyst.

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