Nursing Elites

1. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?

• A. Area support medical battalions
• B. TOE units
• C. Ambulance exchange points
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred between ground and air ambulances. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) refer to medical units that provide medical support to large areas and are not specifically related to evacuation. TOE units (Choice B) and field hospitals (Choice D) are not typically established in response to threats to air resources affecting evacuation.

2. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?

• A. Medical-surgical nursing
• B. Obstetric and newborn nursing
• C. Pediatric nursing
• D. Trauma nursing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.

3. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

5. The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?

• A. Deep tendon reflexes
• B. Arterial blood gases
• C. Skin turgor
• D. Capillary refill time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Assessing arterial blood gases, skin turgor, or capillary refill time is not directly related to the administration of magnesium sulfate in this scenario.

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