ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
- A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
- B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
- C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
- D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.
2. A client with a large lower-leg ulcer needs protein for wound healing. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest?
- A. Kidney beans
- B. Grilled salmon
- C. Peanut butter
- D. Raw spinach
Correct answer: Grilled salmon
Rationale: Grilled salmon is the best choice for providing high-quality protein for wound healing. Salmon is rich in essential amino acids, omega-3 fatty acids, and vitamin D, which can help promote tissue repair and reduce inflammation. Kidney beans, peanut butter, and raw spinach are good protein sources but do not offer the same level of high-quality protein and nutrients needed specifically for wound healing.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.
4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?
- A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
- B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
- C. No indication of renal impairment.
- D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.
Correct answer: No indication of renal impairment.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.
5. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?
- A. Lobectomy
- B. Pneumonectomy
- C. Thoracotomy
- D. Tracheostomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.