ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions
1. Of the following signs and symptoms of bowel obstruction, which is related primarily to small bowel obstruction rather than large bowel obstruction?
- A. Profuse vomiting.
- B. Cramping abdominal pain.
- C. Abdominal distention.
- D. High-pitched bowel sounds above the obstruction.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Profuse vomiting is the classic sign of small bowel obstruction and rarely occurs with large bowel obstruction. Abdominal discomfort and distention are present in both small and large bowel obstructions, but distention is more common in large bowel obstruction. High-pitched bowel sounds indicate hyperperistalsis, which occurs early in obstruction.
2. What is the primary focus of strategic planning in healthcare organizations?
- A. Financial performance
- B. Staff satisfaction
- C. Patient care quality
- D. Regulatory compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In healthcare organizations, the primary focus of strategic planning is to enhance patient care quality. While financial performance, staff satisfaction, and regulatory compliance are essential aspects in healthcare management, they are secondary to the overarching goal of providing high-quality care to patients. Financial performance ensures sustainability, staff satisfaction impacts productivity and retention, and regulatory compliance maintains legal standards. However, without a core focus on improving patient care quality, the strategic planning efforts may not align with the primary mission of healthcare organizations.
3. What condition involves the heart's electrical system malfunctioning, causing very fast heartbeats originating from the ventricles?
- A. Ventricular tachycardia
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Supraventricular tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the heart's electrical system malfunctioning, leading to very fast heartbeats originating from the ventricles. Ventricular tachycardia can be life-threatening as it may progress to ventricular fibrillation, causing cardiac arrest. Atrial fibrillation (choice B) involves rapid, irregular beating of the atria, not the ventricles. Supraventricular tachycardia (choice C) originates above the ventricles and does not involve ventricular malfunction. Bradycardia (choice D) is the opposite of tachycardia, characterized by an abnormally slow heart rate.
4. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
- B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
- D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.
Correct answer: Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.
5. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?
- A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
- B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
- C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
- D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99