Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to a 40-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of

• A. 45 units/L
• B. 100 units/L
• C. 300 units/L
• D. 500 units/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 IU/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis, the rise in serum amylase levels usually does not exceed three times the normal value. In acute pancreatitis, the value may exceed five times the normal value. Options 1 and 2 are within normal limits. Option 3 is an extremely elevated level seen in acute pancreatitis.

2. Which of the following tests can be performed to diagnose a hiatal hernia?

• A. Colonoscopy
• B. Lower GI series
• C. Barium swallow
• D. Abdominal x-rays

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A barium swallow is a diagnostic test that can visualize the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine to diagnose a hiatal hernia.

3. When teaching an elderly client how to prevent constipation, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Drink 6 glasses of fluid each day.
• B. Avoid grain products and nuts.
• C. Add at least 4 grams of brain to your cereal each morning.
• D. Be sure to get regular exercise.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent constipation, elderly clients should be encouraged to get regular exercise, which promotes bowel motility.

4. The client with peptic ulcer disease is scheduled for a pyloroplasty. The client asks the nurse about the procedure. The nurse plans to respond knowing that a pyloroplasty involves:

• A. Cutting the vagus nerve
• B. Removing the distal portion of the stomach
• C. Removal of the ulcer and a large portion of the cells that produce hydrochloric acid
• D. An incision and resuturing of the pylorus to relax the muscle and enlarge the opening from the stomach to the duodenum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pyloroplasty involves making an incision in the pylorus (the opening from the stomach to the duodenum) and then resuturing it to relax the muscle and enlarge the opening.

5. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

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