Nursing Elites

1. Brenda, a 36 y.o. patient is on your floor with acute pancreatitis. Treatment for her includes:

• A. Continuous peritoneal lavage.
• B. Regular diet with increased fat.
• C. Nutritional support with TPN.
• D. Insertion of a T tube to drain the pancreas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment for acute pancreatitis includes nutritional support with TPN.

2. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the client who had an umbilical hernia repair. Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restricting pain medication
• B. Maintaining bedrest
• C. Avoiding coughing
• D. Irrigating the drain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bedrest is not required following this surgical procedure. The client should take analgesics as needed and as prescribed to control pain. A drain is not used in this surgical procedure, although the client may be instructed in simple dressing changes. Coughing is avoided to prevent disruption of the tissue integrity, which can occur because of the location of this surgical procedure.

3. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

• A. Assessing for pain
• B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
• C. Providing discharge teaching
• D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.

4. Michael, a 42 y.o. man is admitted to the med-surg floor with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. His BP is 136/76, pulse 96, Resps 22 and temp 101. His past history includes hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse. The doctor prescribes an NG tube. Before inserting the tube, you explain the purpose to patient. Which of the following is a most accurate explanation?

• A. It empties the stomach of fluids and gas.
• B. It prevents spasms at the sphincter of Oddi.
• C. It prevents air from forming in the small intestine and large intestine.
• D. It removes bile from the gallbladder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explain to the patient that the NG tube is used to empty the stomach of fluids and gas, which helps relieve symptoms of acute pancreatitis.

5. Before bowel surgery, Lee is to administer enemas until clear. During administration, he complains of intestinal cramps. What do you do next?

• A. Discontinue the procedure.
• B. Lower the height of the enema container.
• C. Complete the procedure as quickly as possible.
• D. Continue administration of the enema as ordered without making any adjustments.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a patient complains of intestinal cramps during an enema, lowering the height of the enema container can help reduce discomfort.

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