nurses caring for four clients which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.

2. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.

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