ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 when coughing
- B. Client drained a total of 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from the Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours following surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 per minute
- D. The client has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.
2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which action by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Stand with feet together when lifting a client.
- B. Raise the client's head of bed before pulling the client up.
- C. Use a mechanical lift to move a client.
- D. Place a gait belt around the client's chest before assisting the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a mechanical lift to move a client.' Using a mechanical lift is an essential ergonomic principle to prevent injury and ensure safe client handling. Choice A is incorrect because standing with feet together when lifting a client can lead to instability and improper weight distribution. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's head of bed before pulling the client up does not primarily relate to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect because while using a gait belt is important for assisting clients with mobility, it is not specifically related to ergonomic principles for safe handling.
3. How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?
- A. Provide education about medication
- B. Refer the patient to a specialist
- C. Explore alternative treatments
- D. Reassess the patient in 6 months
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.
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