ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
- C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min
- B. White blood cell count of 9,000/mm3
- C. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
- D. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) should be reported to the provider as it can indicate infection, a common postoperative complication. A normal heart rate of 80/min (Choice A), white blood cell count of 9,000/mm3 (Choice B), and blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg (Choice D) are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.
3. What is the most important assessment for a patient post-surgery?
- A. Monitor vital signs
- B. Check surgical site for bleeding
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check skin color
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs provide crucial information about a patient's physiological status, helping detect early signs of complications such as shock, bleeding, or infection. Checking the surgical site for bleeding is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs, which give a broader overview of the patient's condition. Checking for abnormal breath sounds and skin color are also important assessments, but they are not as immediate and general as monitoring vital signs in detecting various post-surgical complications.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
5. A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
- A. Jugular vein distention
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Bounding pulses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.
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