Nursing Elites

1. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

• A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
• B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
• C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
• D. I have the right to refuse treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in a private room with negative airflow.
• B. Wear an N95 respirator when caring for the client.
• C. Place the client in a positive pressure room.
• D. Maintain the client on droplet precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a private room with negative airflow. This is crucial for preventing the spread of tuberculosis (TB) infection. Option B, wearing an N95 respirator when caring for the client, is important for staff protection but does not address the need for isolation precautions. Option C, placing the client in a positive pressure room, is incorrect as TB clients should be in negative pressure rooms to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option D, maintaining the client on droplet precautions, is not sufficient for TB, which requires airborne precautions.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Maintain the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Provide reassurance to the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Provide information about stress management.
• B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
• C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
• D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.

5. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

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