Nursing Elites

1. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

• A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
• B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
• C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
• D. I have the right to refuse treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client on their left side.
• B. Insert the enema tubing 8 cm (3.1 in) into the client's rectum.
• C. Hold the container of the enema solution 61 cm (24 in) above the client.
• D. Advance the enema tubing 15 cm (6 in) into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a cleansing enema is to hold the container of the enema solution 61 cm (24 in) above the client. This height facilitates the proper flow of the solution into the client's rectum. Positioning the client on their left side helps facilitate the administration process, but it is not the specific action related to the enema solution. Inserting the enema tubing 8 cm (3.1 in) into the rectum is incorrect as it may not deliver the solution effectively. Advancing the enema tubing 15 cm (6 in) into the client's rectum is excessive and could cause trauma.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum protein
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in a private room with negative airflow.
• B. Wear an N95 respirator when caring for the client.
• C. Place the client in a positive pressure room.
• D. Maintain the client on droplet precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a private room with negative airflow. This is crucial for preventing the spread of tuberculosis (TB) infection. Option B, wearing an N95 respirator when caring for the client, is important for staff protection but does not address the need for isolation precautions. Option C, placing the client in a positive pressure room, is incorrect as TB clients should be in negative pressure rooms to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option D, maintaining the client on droplet precautions, is not sufficient for TB, which requires airborne precautions.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

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