ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?
- A. Labyrinthitis
- B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Decreased bone density
- D. Hypercoagulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.
2. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
3. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera, and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend to prevent the complications of this health problem?
- A. Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K
- B. Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters)
- C. Performing active range of motion exercises daily
- D. Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs. Patients with polycythemia vera are at risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), so it is essential to avoid tight and restrictive clothing that can impede circulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding natural sources of vitamin K, altitudes of 1500 feet, and performing active range of motion exercises are not directly related to preventing complications of polycythemia vera.
4. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just received a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Risk for bleeding
- B. Risk for infection
- C. Impaired gas exchange
- D. Imbalanced nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Risk for infection is a high priority due to the patient's compromised immune system from AML.
5. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?
- A. Gastroduodenostomy
- B. Gastrojejunostomy
- C. Gastroileostomy
- D. Gastrostomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.
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