Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?

• A. Labyrinthitis
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Decreased bone density
• D. Hypercoagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.

2. A client is admitted with superior vena cava syndrome. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a dose of allopurinol.
• B. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
• C. Gently inquire about advance directives.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to gently inquire about advance directives. Superior vena cava syndrome is often a late-stage manifestation, indicating a serious condition. Discussing advance directives with the client is crucial to ensure their wishes are known in case of deterioration. Administering allopurinol (Choice A) is not indicated for superior vena cava syndrome. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level (Choice B) is not the priority when managing this syndrome. Emergency surgery (Choice D) is not typically the initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome.

3. A nurse is caring for a client admitted for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chemotherapy. The client reports nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Request an order for serum electrolytes and uric acid.
• B. Increase the client’s IV infusion rate.
• C. Instruct assistive personnel to strain all urine.
• D. Administer an IV antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's symptoms of nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps are suggestive of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy in which cancer cells break down rapidly, releasing large amounts of intracellular components into the bloodstream. This leads to imbalances in electrolytes (elevated potassium, phosphate, and uric acid levels, with low calcium levels), which can cause severe metabolic disturbances, including kidney damage, arrhythmias, and muscle cramps. Checking serum electrolytes and uric acid levels is crucial for diagnosing and managing TLS early, preventing further complications.

4. A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?

• A. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• B. Platelet count
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient’s risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.

5. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

• A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
• B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
• C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
• D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

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