ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?
- A. Labyrinthitis
- B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Decreased bone density
- D. Hypercoagulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.
2. Which client is most likely to need regular injections of vitamin B12?
- A. The client with malabsorption syndrome.
- B. The client following a vegan eating pattern.
- C. The client whose stomach does not produce intrinsic factors.
- D. The client with alcoholism.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client whose stomach does not produce intrinsic factors is most likely to need regular injections of vitamin B12. Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12. Without intrinsic factor, the client cannot absorb vitamin B12 from food, necessitating the need for regular injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly impact the production of intrinsic factors in the stomach, so they are less likely to result in the need for vitamin B12 injections.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
4. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?
- A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
- B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
- C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
- D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.
5. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Drink a glass of milk with each meal.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Drink plenty of fluids with meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.
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