as part of chemotherapy education the nurse teaches a female client about the risk for bleeding and self care during the period of greatest bone marro
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse teaches a female client about the risk for bleeding and self-care during the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir). The nurse understands that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin is not recommended during periods of bone marrow suppression as it can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can impair platelet function, further exacerbating the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements for a client at risk for bleeding and undergoing chemotherapy. Blowing the nose gently, being prepared for a platelet transfusion if needed, and monitoring menstrual bleeding are all important aspects of self-care during this period.

2. A client is receiving chemotherapy through a peripheral IV line. What action by the nurse is most important?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are often vesicants, meaning they can cause severe tissue damage if they leak (extravasate) outside of the vein. When chemotherapy is administered through a peripheral IV line, it is crucial for the nurse to frequently assess the IV site for signs of complications such as redness, swelling, or pain, which could indicate extravasation. Checking for blood return ensures the IV catheter is still in the vein and functioning properly. Preventing tissue damage from chemotherapy extravasation is a top priority, and frequent monitoring helps ensure the infusion is proceeding safely.

3. A nurse is preparing health education for a patient who has received a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). Which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Because of patients risks of hemorrhage, patients with MDS should be taught techniques for managing emergent bleeding episodes.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

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