ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. Four clients are receiving tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). Which of these four clients would the nurse assess first?
- A. Dry, itchy, peeling skin.
- B. Serum calcium of 9.2 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L).
- C. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L).
- D. Weight gain of 0.5 lb (1.1 kg) in 1 day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and requires immediate intervention.
2. Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?
- A. Peau d'orange
- B. Painless breast mass
- C. Alopecia
- D. Breast enlargement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.
3. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder?
- A. Altered red blood cell production
- B. Altered production of lymph nodes
- C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
- D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that involves the malignant proliferation of plasma cells, which are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. In multiple myeloma, these abnormal plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow, where they interfere with the production of normal blood cells and lead to the formation of tumors in the bones. This can cause bone pain, fractures, anemia, and impaired immune function. The excessive production of abnormal antibodies can also result in kidney damage and other systemic complications.
4. Which of the following management strategies is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs?
- A. Limit exposure of pregnant visitors
- B. Protect client from infection
- C. Allow client to use makeup and wig
- D. Administer IV fluids as ordered
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chemotherapy can lead to hair loss, and while using wigs is common, it is not a primary management strategy. The focus should be on limiting exposure to pregnant visitors to prevent harm to the fetus, protecting the client from infections due to a compromised immune system, and administering IV fluids as ordered to maintain hydration levels. Allowing the client to use makeup and wigs is not a primary concern when managing a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs.
5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
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