Nursing Elites

1. Four clients are receiving tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). Which of these four clients would the nurse assess first?

• A. Dry, itchy, peeling skin.
• B. Serum calcium of 9.2 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L).
• C. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L).
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 lb (1.1 kg) in 1 day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and requires immediate intervention.

2. A nurse enters the room of a patient with bladder cancer. The patient asks the nurse about the actions of chemotherapeutic drugs. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?

• A. Chemotherapeutic drugs will kill all of your cancer cells
• B. Chemotherapeutic medications are attracted mostly to slowly dividing cells
• C. Chemotherapy can cure cancer
• D. Chemotherapy is specifically destroying cancer cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are designed to target and destroy rapidly dividing cells, which include cancer cells. Cancer cells often divide more quickly than normal cells, and chemotherapeutic agents exploit this characteristic to inhibit their growth and promote cell death. While chemotherapy can also affect other rapidly dividing normal cells (such as those in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles), the primary goal is to target cancerous cells.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

5. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

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