ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
- B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
- C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.
2. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?
- A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
- B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
- C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
- D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.
3. An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:
- A. Blood
- B. Kidneys
- C. Lungs
- D. Mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. IgA1 is mainly found in the blood and plays a crucial role in preventing infections by neutralizing pathogens. While IgA1 can be present in other body areas, its primary function is associated with preventing infections in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as IgA1 is not primarily associated with the kidneys, lungs, or mucous membranes.
4. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?
- A. Temporal arteritis
- B. Trigeminal neuralgia
- C. Migraine headache
- D. Cluster headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.
5. In a 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reporting increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and cough, which finding would indicate a potential exacerbation of his COPD?
- A. Increased wheezing
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Improved exercise tolerance
- D. Decreased sputum production
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased wheezing. In COPD exacerbations, there is a worsening of symptoms such as increased wheezing due to airway inflammation and narrowing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate would not be expected in COPD exacerbation as it is usually a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Improved exercise tolerance is not a typical finding in exacerbations but rather a sign of improvement. Decreased sputum production is also not indicative of exacerbation, as exacerbations are often associated with increased sputum production.
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