a 45 year old client is admitted with new onset status epilepticus what is the priority nursing intervention
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

2. What best describes sepsis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.

3. What causes the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Air trapping in the alveoli. A barrel chest in emphysema results from the hyperinflation of the lungs due to air trapping in the alveoli. This leads to increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema is swelling caused by fluid retention in tissues, not associated with a barrel chest in emphysema. Bacterial infections in the lungs can lead to conditions like pneumonia but do not directly cause a barrel chest. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm could affect breathing mechanics but is not specifically linked to the development of a barrel chest in emphysema.

4. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

5. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by the patient's statement regarding taking extra griseofulvin when she thinks her infection is getting worse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin.' The patient's statement shows a misunderstanding of the correct use of griseofulvin by taking extra medication when she believes her infection is worsening. This behavior indicates a disturbance in her thought process regarding the appropriate use of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not lack of knowledge but rather a misunderstanding leading to inappropriate actions. Choice B is incorrect as the patient's actions do not demonstrate effective management of her therapeutic regimen. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is not engaged in self-medication but rather misinterpreting signals and self-adjusting the prescribed medication.

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