ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
- B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
- C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.
2. What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
- B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
- C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
- D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.
3. In the ED, a homeless client is brought in with severe hypothermia. The police officers also state that they found a 'bottle of booze' on the sidewalk next to him. This puts the nurse on high alert since alcohol contributes to hypothermia by:
- A. interfering with the appetite center in the brain, causing the person to not respond to hunger cues.
- B. causing the person to have less insulation from body fat.
- C. dulling mental awareness, impairing judgment to seek shelter.
- D. increasing the basal metabolic rate, leading to faster depletion of ATP.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol impairs judgment and dulls mental awareness, making a person less likely to seek shelter when experiencing hypothermia. This impaired judgment can lead to risky behaviors that exacerbate the effects of cold exposure. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol does not directly interfere with the appetite center in the brain to the extent described. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol consumption does not directly impact the amount of body fat present. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol does not increase the basal metabolic rate but rather slows it down.
4. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What key point should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism." It is crucial for patients to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots while taking tamoxifen. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen, but they are not the key point to emphasize. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are potential side effects of tamoxifen but not the key point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss.
5. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
- A. Decreased insulin production
- B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
- C. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- D. Increased production of insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access