a 45 year old client is admitted with new onset status epilepticus what is the priority nursing intervention
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

2. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.

3. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark urine is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. When muscle breakdown occurs, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream and filtered by the kidneys, leading to dark urine. Paresthesias (choice A) refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness and are not typically associated with rhabdomyolysis. Bone pain (choice B) is not a prominent symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common complaint in rhabdomyolysis cases and is not directly related to muscle breakdown.

4. A patient presents with a rash from poison ivy. The nurse knows that this is which type of hypersensitivity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A rash from poison ivy is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed cell-mediated immune responses involving T cells. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 48-72 hours after exposure to the antigen. Choice A, Type I hypersensitivity reactions, are immediate hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE antibodies. Choices B and C, Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, involve antibody-mediated cytotoxicity and immune complex deposition, respectively, which are not characteristic of poison ivy-induced rashes.

5. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

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