a woman is prescribed hormonal contraceptives what aspect of this treatment places her at greatest risk for the development of blood clots
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ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

2. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.

3. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

4. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

5. What can multiple dark bands on the nails indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be associated with malignant melanoma, a serious type of skin cancer. While dark bands on the nails can sometimes be a normal variant, they should not be ignored as they could also be a sign of a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents with different symptoms such as thickened, discolored, or brittle nails. Dark bands on the nails are not directly associated with aging.

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A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?
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Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

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