ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?
- A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
- B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
- C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
- D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.
2. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?
- A. Phagocytic, interferon, and complement systems.
- B. Complement, fibrinolytic, and clotting systems.
- C. Complement, clotting, and kinin systems.
- D. Complement, clotting, and acute phase reactant systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.
3. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.
4. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
- A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
- B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
- C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
- D. An incision from an open appendectomy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.
5. What can multiple dark bands on the nails indicate?
- A. They are considered a normal variant.
- B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
- C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
- D. They are associated with aging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be associated with malignant melanoma, a serious type of skin cancer. While dark bands on the nails can sometimes be a normal variant, they should not be ignored as they could also be a sign of a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents with different symptoms such as thickened, discolored, or brittle nails. Dark bands on the nails are not directly associated with aging.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access