ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?
- A. The client will not be able to distinguish between the two points.
- B. The client will feel only one point of contact.
- C. The client will accurately identify both points.
- D. The client will report no sensation in the touched areas.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.
2. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Cold and heat application
- C. Therapeutic ultrasound
- D. Biofeedback
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cold and heat application. Cold and heat application are commonly used nonpharmacologic methods for managing pain and can complement pharmacologic treatments. Cold packs can help reduce inflammation and numb localized areas, while heat application can increase blood flow and relax muscles. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (A) focuses on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors to manage pain but may not directly supplement pharmacologic analgesia. Therapeutic ultrasound (C) uses sound waves to generate heat within body tissues, which can be therapeutic, but it may not be as directly complementary to pharmacologic analgesia as cold and heat application. Biofeedback (D) involves using electronic devices to help individuals control physiological processes, but its direct role as a supplement to pharmacologic analgesia may be less pronounced compared to cold and heat application.
3. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia?
- A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy
- B. Those who exercise regularly and are not exposed to pathogens
- C. Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised
- D. Those who have adequate respiratory function
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients who are hospitalized and immunocompromised are at the highest risk for pneumonia due to their weakened immune systems. Choice A is incorrect as young and healthy individuals typically have stronger immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise can actually boost the immune system and reduce the risk of infections. Choice D is incorrect as having adequate respiratory function does not necessarily correlate with the risk of developing pneumonia.
4. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.
5. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
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