ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Heart rate of 60/min
- D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.
3. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line to prevent infection?
- A. Change the dressing daily
- B. Monitor for redness
- C. Check the central line site every shift
- D. Flush the line with saline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Changing the central line dressing daily is crucial in preventing infection at the insertion site. This practice helps maintain a clean and sterile environment around the central line, reducing the risk of pathogens entering the bloodstream. Monitoring for redness (choice B) is important but may not directly prevent infection. Checking the central line site every shift (choice C) is essential for early detection of any issues but does not solely prevent infection. Flushing the line with saline (choice D) is a necessary procedure for maintaining central line patency but does not primarily prevent infection.
4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
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