Nursing Elites

1. When administering an incorrect dose of medication, which facts related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

• A. Time the medication was given
• B. The client's response to the medication
• C. The dose that was administered
• D. Reason for the error

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when administering an incorrect dose. This information is crucial for tracking the sequence of events leading to the error. Choice B, the client's response to the medication, is important for monitoring the client's condition post-administration but may not be directly linked to the incident report. Choice C, documenting the dose that was administered, is relevant but does not provide insights into the timing of events. Choice D, detailing the reason for the error, should be included in the incident report but may not need to be documented in the client's medical record.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be elevated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. Amylase levels are elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Bilirubin (choice B) may be elevated in conditions affecting the liver, not specifically in acute pancreatitis. Creatinine (choice D) is a marker of kidney function and is not directly related to acute pancreatitis.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Monitor for signs of infection.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

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